My British ex-wife and I were divorced two years ago. I realize that I'm obligated to top up her annual income to 125% of the US poverty level, now she's pursuing that.
She could so easily work to achieve that level of income, but chooses not to. She not only received a six-figure sum at the divorce, but a $300,000 house.
Should I just pay her, or is it worth taking it to court to have a judge decide? Given her resources, I feel that she is no threat to the US as a financial burden.
Thanks in anticipation!
Thank you, Marieke. I realize that I completed misunderstood the system. I will contact an immigration lawyer for further guidance. Thanks again!