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So here's the deal. My husband was denied entry to the United States in September 2015. During questioning he lied about being engaged to myself and stated that he intended to lie (he didn't) about other things to try to enter the US. He was sent back home again under 212(a)(7)(a)(i)(i). That's "intended immigrant without a visa" for anyone not fluent in Immigrationlish. No ban. He just ###### up. We know it!

 

So the following year he is approved for the K1 visa, he enters the US with no issues and we get married and apply for AoS. Smooth sailing until our interview today. The officer has not told us if we are approved or not because she needs to find out if my hubby needs a waiver! 

 

But why?! DoHS decided he was admissible when they gave him his Visa. CBP said he was admissible when they let him go free in Chicago. So why is it an issue now?

 

Just to be clear. He wasn't banned from entering for [insert X number of years here]. No waiver was filled with the K1. And he wasn't found to have misrepresented a material fact. So long story short... What's going on?!

 
Didn't find the answer you were looking for? Ask our VJ Immigration Lawyers.

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