Converting to Islam

[mybackpages 0]

Perhaps the 'requirement' to learn Arabic is due not to a belief that God only answers prayers in Arabic, but that since Arabic is the original language of the religion, it's best to read it in the original if you're coming from a tradition that isn't familiar with it (i.e., the U.S.) rather than sorting through translations. (And convenient, since the original language is still a living language.) Iran has millions of Muslims and a long tradition of having lots of Muslims, so it's not really surprising that they wouldn't be learning Arabic.

Are the conversion requirements really that low? No one should need to be a scholar, but how do you avoid ending up with lots of Muslims who don't know anything about Islam if they don't have classes first? Is there study required after conversion?

The only requirement is one of obligation on the self to study. The first word revealed to the Prophert was read. Many understand this to show the importance of study and education in Islam.

[mybackpages 0]

I realize how difficult it is to read the Quran which is why I have a translation. Is it that difficult for it to be translated into Farsi? From what I heard that is not why the Shia don't go by the Quran.

Like peezy says Shi'a do go by the Quran. The basic difference between sunni and shi'ia stems from a disagreement over leader of the community following the death of the prophet. This division over several centuries have led to some differences in interpretation and practice, but at the heart of it all, both are following Islam.

[doodlebug 3]

I realize how difficult it is to read the Quran which is why I have a translation. Is it that difficult for it to be translated into Farsi? From what I heard that is not why the Shia don't go by the Quran.

Like peezy says Shi'a do go by the Quran. The basic difference between sunni and shi'ia stems from a disagreement over leader of the community following the death of the prophet. This division over several centuries have led to some differences in interpretation and practice, but at the heart of it all, both are following Islam.

That is what I always thought...that the Shi'a follow Ali, while the Sunni's follow Muhammed. I wonder why my husband was so adamant that they don't go by the Quran. Maybe he's a byproduct of much Shi'a prejudice.

Anyway, the way I was taught, regarding the prayer in Arabic, is that it keeps the meaning "pure". One can translate a few arabic words into several different meanings in English and if we follow a translation then we will end up with similar problems that the bible has had which is many many many different translations and meanings. The way to keep it "pure" and unadulterated, so I was told, is to keep it Arabic. I like the idea of millions of people praying at the same time in the same language. It gives me chills sometimes when I think that we're all facing in the same direction saying the exact same words. That's why I was kind of bummed and perplexed when I found out that Iranians pray in Farsi. Oh well, no biggie.

[Sofiyya 1,687]

Perhaps the 'requirement' to learn Arabic is due not to a belief that God only answers prayers in Arabic, but that since Arabic is the original language of the religion, it's best to read it in the original if you're coming from a tradition that isn't familiar with it (i.e., the U.S.) rather than sorting through translations. (And convenient, since the original language is still a living language.) Iran has millions of Muslims and a long tradition of having lots of Muslims, so it's not really surprising that they wouldn't be learning Arabic.

Are the conversion requirements really that low? No one should need to be a scholar, but how do you avoid ending up with lots of Muslims who don't know anything about Islam if they don't have classes first? Is there study required after conversion?

Arabic is NOT the original language of Islam. Islam was not a new religion when it was revealed to the Arabs. It has existed since Adam and Hawa, and has been delivered to every corner of the world in every language. The prayers of all of those people were accepted by God in every language, for each language is from Him and He understands them all. That is why there is no dictate from Allah to pray in Arabic.

Shia do read the Quran. It is their Holy Book.

There are no common requirements for learning about Islam before or after conversion, but it is certainly wise to learn about it prior to conversion, and difficult to practice without learning about it.

Understanding Arabic doesn't keep the meanings pure and unadulterated either, or there would be no debates about the meanings of ayat by Arabic speakers. That there have been and continue to be debates among Arabs about how words should be translated or interpreted demonstrates that proficient knowledge of Arabic settles nothing.

PS - Chinese Muslims pray in Chinese dialects. You may be surprised how many Muslims do not pray in Arabic.

Edited March 31, 2007 by Green-eyed girl

[mybackpages 0]

That is what I always thought...that the Shi'a follow Ali, while the Sunni's follow Muhammed. I wonder why my husband was so adamant that they don't go by the Quran. Maybe he's a byproduct of much Shi'a prejudice.

Keep in mind that all muslims followed Ali too. He was the fourth Caliph after the Phrophet's death. the split between Shi'ia and Sunni came in who should come after Ali.

[m&n 0]

For some reason I remember someone telling me once that there is a sect of Shi3i that also believed that Ali was the successor of Mohamed (saw) and that caused division.....

Muslims can supplicate and ask for forgiveness, help, mercy, etc. in any language, however, the 5 obligatory prayers are required to be performed in Arabic....but of course, one can understand the translation of the verses they're reciting in any language they wish and, of course, when we are unsure of something, we should ask people who have knowledge in the matter that we question.

[Sofiyya 1,687]

Please explain from where derives a "requirement" that the 5 obligatory prayers be said only in Arabic. Ayat and ahadith, please. It is customary to pray them in Arabic, but more is needed to declare it to be required.

Edited March 31, 2007 by Green-eyed girl

[peezey 0]

Please explain from where derives a "requirement" that the 5 obligatory prayers be said only in Arabic. Ayat and ahadith, please. It is customary to pray them in Arabic, but more is needed to declare it to be required.

Why is this myth perpetuated over and over? The minority of muslims are arab. How in the world does this continue to be what is said over and over about arabic/islam? How can a muslim know the God that revealed as he did such fairness and clarity believe that this same God requires this very trivial thing about praying and reading the qu'ran?

[m&n 0]

I've asked this question before and this question has been asked by many. When we ask a scholar a question and if we receive an answer that we don't particularly like than it's our decision what to do with it from there, however, no myths are being perpetuated. A ruling is made if it is referred to in a verse, in a hadith, or through `igma3 which is the consensus of the scholars that studied the quran & hadith. In the book fiqh al-sunnah in the volume that discusses the requirements of salat or prayer, it lists all the requirements of prayer, such as removal of filth, facing the qiblah, etc.......one of the requirements listed is that the recitation be done in Arabic. I have these volumes and I looked it up & it is there. The reasons given are many but the one that was mentioned first & that the consensus is based on is that the Prophet, when people asked him how should we pray, replied, "Pray like you see me praying."

But it is undersood that for most people whose first language is not Arabic it will take some time until they learn the verses and of course God is merciful and does not burden a soul with more than it can bear and so the prayer should be done in translation until they can learn the verses.....just as with children....because it will take time to learn. It did mention and it is always comforting to know that those who are trying & find it harder & perhaps are stumbling over words actually get double the reward than someone who finds the language easy. Someone who finds the language easy gets the reward for praying. Someone who finds it hard gets double, a reward for praying and a reward for trying.....I think that's fair........how could that not be fair?

[Caladan 19]

Arabic is NOT the original language of Islam. Islam was not a new religion when it was revealed to the Arabs. It has existed since Adam and Hawa, and has been delivered to every corner of the world in every language. The prayers of all of those people were accepted by God in every language, for each language is from Him and He understands them all. That is why there is no dictate from Allah to pray in Arabic.

...

I agree that it doesn't seem to be a requirement; my claim was only that many associate Arabic and Islam because the Quran is in Arabic. (Outside of the religion, like in a theology classroom, we wouldn't say that the religion started with Adam; for similar reasons, many don't speak of Abraham as being an early Christian. So amend my previous statement to 'the revelation of the Quran' instead of 'the founding of Islam.')

And if advice is given to a new American convert to learn it in Arabic, it's probably just due to the difficulty of accurate translation, and the lack of a large home-grown English-only community.

[Sofiyya 1,687]

I've asked this question before and this question has been asked by many. When we ask a scholar a question and if we receive an answer that we don't particularly like than it's our decision what to do with it from there, however, no myths are being perpetuated. A ruling is made if it is referred to in a verse, in a hadith, or through `igma3 which is the consensus of the scholars that studied the quran & hadith. In the book fiqh al-sunnah in the volume that discusses the requirements of salat or prayer, it lists all the requirements of prayer, such as removal of filth, facing the qiblah, etc.......one of the requirements listed is that the recitation be done in Arabic. I have these volumes and I looked it up & it is there. The reasons given are many but the one that was mentioned first & that the consensus is based on is that the Prophet, when people asked him how should we pray, replied, "Pray like you see me praying."

But it is undersood that for most people whose first language is not Arabic it will take some time until they learn the verses and of course God is merciful and does not burden a soul with more than it can bear and so the prayer should be done in translation until they can learn the verses.....just as with children....because it will take time to learn. It did mention and it is always comforting to know that those who are trying & find it harder & perhaps are stumbling over words actually get double the reward than someone who finds the language easy. Someone who finds the language easy gets the reward for praying. Someone who finds it hard gets double, a reward for praying and a reward for trying.....I think that's fair........how could that not be fair?

Bismillah. Salaam and thank you very much, m&n, for your prompt and concise answer to the question posed. However, and with all due respect, it does not cite Quran nor Sunnah, the elements needed to make a ruling binding. Merely being mentioned in a list in a book of fiqh does not mean that the element is of the sharia, only that the element is of fiqh.

With all due respect, I own books of classical fiqh, but have also intently learned about the history of their development, their level of authority and how it was obtained, and the context in which they are to be used, among other issues.

First, one must understand the sharp and important differences between fiqh and sharia. Unlike sharia, which cannot be debated, fiqh, in and of itself, is not divine, and can be debated, even if ijima exists, for ijima and fiqh are mortal constructs not to supercede the divinity of God's law.

It was fervently acknowledged by the great imams of the major schools of thought that their determinations were not only fallible, debatable and changeable, but, to be challenged if necessary, for they were not God, could do only their best in determining His Will in matters he did not dictate directly, and were liable to err. In fact, their rulings on similar matters varied from society to society in order to address the norms and needs of that particular society. That is why the existence of more than one school of thought, coming to differing conclusions has never been vexing for Muslim scholars.

In fiqh, sharia is an aspect of fiqh determinations, it is not the only one. Other considerations are included, including, but not limited to, tradition, precedent, politics, geography, history, ethnicity, and patriarchy, all varying from place to place.

So, why has Arabic been determined in fiqh to be the only language allowable for the obligatory prayers, and is the determination a preference or a requirement sanctioned by Allah?

The language of prayer is one of the issues that Allah did not address directly, and the scholars wrestled with it in the face of differing languages in different societies where Islam spread. In fact, re the issue, Iman Hanifa, the scholar to whom is often referred when discussing the "requirement" to recite prayers in Arabic, changed his mind. At first, he declared that Arabic was NOT required for the mandatory 5 prayers. Later, he decided that it was. This is how man makes decisions about God's requirements, not how God makes decisions about His requirements.

We have the issue of precedent, which is extremely important in fiqh determinations; the ages old precedent of how the prophets and messengers prior to Muhammad (pbuh) addressed Allah (saws) and how they taught the believers among them in their own languages, and that their praise and worship of God was accepted. The Quran addresses the use of Arabic approximately 11 times, saying that the Message is revealed in Arabic so that it may be well understood by those who care to gain wisdom. It also acknowledges that it is a confirmation of prior scriptures, specifically that of Musa, who did not teach in Arabic. The Quran also says that we are never to rank the prophets, for that is the duty of God. That Muhammad taught and prayed in Arabic is not a directive for all of us to pray in Arabic. He prayed in Arabic because that is the only language he knew, not because it was the only language Allah will accept. When he said, "Pray as you see me pray", he was not referring to the concept that the Message is lost in a transliteration. The precedent of the earlier prophets and messengers teaching with the guidance of Allah in languages other than Arabic denies that assertion.

Being that Islam was revealed for centuries in other languages prior to Arabic, it is totally incorrect to say that Arabic is the original language of Islam and the divine language of Islam, as some answers to this question have maintained. It is neither original nor divine. All languages belong to Allah and He understands every one of them. So, we come to the issue of Islam in other languages.

The Prophet taught only in Arabic, but Muslims today do not. Islam is learned in a myriad of languages requiring interpretation. The intensity and breadth of learning is limited only by the desire of the student. Variations in language have not been a burden upon the spread of the faith, nor in the ability of Muslims, most of whom do not converse in Arabic, to become faithful Mu'min. The argument that prayers in Arabic only maintain the exact meaning of the prayer is a fallacious one in light of how the rest of the meaning is transmitted every day, worldwide. Among Muslims who pray proficiently in Arabic exist those who trade slaves, kill innocents, and commit other depravities in God's Name. Prayer in Arabic alone does not convey an understanding of the true nature of God nor His intent for us as a people.

I am a native Arabic speaker and I have never had to struggle to learn the prayers in Arabic. With all due respect, I do not believe that I am rewarded for praying in Arabic. There is no foundation for believing that, in fact, I belieev that is a ethno-chauvinist notion. I also do not believe that a requirement for prayer in Arabic can be deduced from fiqh, although a desire for it being a binding factor within the ummah may be derived from study. Fiqh is allowed to take into consideration the interest of the ummah, large and small. The brotherhood of prayer may be found in reciting the obligatory prayers in one language, but there is no sin in not always reciting prayer in Arabic.

Reliance on fiqh to discern requirements for any aspect of Islam can become a trap when not used properly. Ijima is a tool and scholars our helpers, but our practices are to be our own burden, not theirs. If one relies on fiqh, one also has a great responsibility to understand beyond what is behind the rulings.

For example, if one makes the claim that classical fiqh is composed of the Sunnah of Allah and the Sunnah of the Prophet Muhammad, that ijima rules, and therefore, 5 mandatory prayers can only be recited in Arabic, then one must rely on all things ijima. That would lead you to also declare that every couple on this board consisting of a Muslim man and a non-Muslim woman living or intending to live together in the west is going against the law. Classical fiqh has also determined that for a Muslim man to take a non-Muslim wife and live with her in a non-Muslim country is committing a reprehensible act in defiance of God's Will. To be consistent, one will have to assert all things ijima as the best practice and in the best interest of the ummah, meaning that one will also need to believe that.

I am not saying that you are unwilling to do that, m&n, but I have not seen you broach that subject on a board where the majority have been willfully breaking such a law for years, although it is a matter of classical fiqh law. We don't often do that, for it is difficult to uphold such decisions in personal matters among friends who are in defiance of it. I only present it as an example of how asserting fiqh without proper examination of the law, and without full knowledge of how it is to be applied can lead to holes in our claims, or a hesitancy to assert it in challenge to all claims that are in opposition to fiqh law.

When we ask a scholar a question and if we receive an answer that we don't particularly like than it's our decision what to do with it from there, and that is so true. But, it is up to us to learn more about how the scholar has formed the answer, how it applies in the particular circumstances involving us and if the answer is even correct and/or binding before we assert the answer to others. If prayer in Arabic is binding based on fiqh and ijima, and fiqh and ijima are based on sharia, and that is why we believe it to be required, then we cannot, in good conscious, assert one requirement in fiqh and not others, can we?

Edited April 1, 2007 by Green-eyed girl

[doodlebug 3]

I've asked this question before and this question has been asked by many. When we ask a scholar a question and if we receive an answer that we don't particularly like than it's our decision what to do with it from there, however, no myths are being perpetuated. A ruling is made if it is referred to in a verse, in a hadith, or through `igma3 which is the consensus of the scholars that studied the quran & hadith. In the book fiqh al-sunnah in the volume that discusses the requirements of salat or prayer, it lists all the requirements of prayer, such as removal of filth, facing the qiblah, etc.......one of the requirements listed is that the recitation be done in Arabic. I have these volumes and I looked it up & it is there. The reasons given are many but the one that was mentioned first & that the consensus is based on is that the Prophet, when people asked him how should we pray, replied, "Pray like you see me praying."

But it is undersood that for most people whose first language is not Arabic it will take some time until they learn the verses and of course God is merciful and does not burden a soul with more than it can bear and so the prayer should be done in translation until they can learn the verses.....just as with children....because it will take time to learn. It did mention and it is always comforting to know that those who are trying & find it harder & perhaps are stumbling over words actually get double the reward than someone who finds the language easy. Someone who finds the language easy gets the reward for praying. Someone who finds it hard gets double, a reward for praying and a reward for trying.....I think that's fair........how could that not be fair?

Bismillah. Salaam and thank you very much, m&n, for your prompt and concise answer to the question posed. However, and with all due respect, it does not cite Quran nor Sunnah, the elements needed to make a ruling binding. Merely being mentioned in a list in a book of fiqh does not mean that the element is of the sharia, only that the element is of fiqh.

With all due respect, I own books of classical fiqh, but have also intently learned about the history of their development, their level of authority and how it was obtained, and the context in which they are to be used, among other issues.

First, one must understand the sharp and important differences between fiqh and sharia. Unlike sharia, which cannot be debated, fiqh, in and of itself, is not divine, and can be debated, even if ijima exists, for ijima and fiqh are mortal constructs not to supercede the divinity of God's law.

It was fervently acknowledged by the great imams of the major schools of thought that their determinations were not only fallible, debatable and changeable, but, to be challenged if necessary, for they were not God, could do only their best in determining His Will in matters he did not dictate directly, and were liable to err. In fact, their rulings on similar matters varied from society to society in order to address the norms and needs of that particular society. That is why the existence of more than one school of thought, coming to differing conclusions has never been vexing for Muslim scholars.

In fiqh, sharia is an aspect of fiqh determinations, it is not the only one. Other considerations are included, including, but not limited to, tradition, precedent, politics, geography, history, ethnicity, and patriarchy, all varying from place to place.

So, why has Arabic been determined in fiqh to be the only language allowable for the obligatory prayers, and is the determination a preference or a requirement sanctioned by Allah?

The language of prayer is one of the issues that Allah did not address directly, and the scholars wrestled with it in the face of differing languages in different societies where Islam spread. In fact, re the issue, Iman Hanifa, the scholar to whom is often referred when discussing the "requirement" to recite prayers in Arabic, changed his mind. At first, he declared that Arabic was NOT required for the mandatory 5 prayers. Later, he decided that it was. This is how man makes decisions about God's requirements, not how God makes decisions about His requirements.

We have the issue of precedent, which is extremely important in fiqh determinations; the ages old precedent of how the prophets and messengers prior to Muhammad (pbuh) addressed Allah (saws) and how they taught the believers among them in their own languages, and that their praise and worship of God was accepted. The Quran addresses the use of Arabic approximately 11 times, saying that the Message is revealed in Arabic so that it may be well understood by those who care to gain wisdom. It also acknowledges that it is a confirmation of prior scriptures, specifically that of Musa, who did not teach in Arabic. The Quran also says that we are never to rank the prophets, for that is the duty of God. That Muhammad taught and prayed in Arabic is not a directive for all of us to pray in Arabic. He prayed in Arabic because that is the only language he knew, not because it was the only language Allah will accept. When he said, "Pray as you see me pray", he was not referring to the concept that the Message is lost in a transliteration. The precedent of the earlier prophets and messengers teaching with the guidance of Allah in languages other than Arabic denies that assertion.

Being that Islam was revealed for centuries in other languages prior to Arabic, it is totally incorrect to say that Arabic is the original language of Islam and the divine language of Islam, as some answers to this question have maintained. It is neither original nor divine. All languages belong to Allah and He understands every one of them. So, we come to the issue of Islam in other languages.

The Prophet taught only in Arabic, but Muslims today do not. Islam is learned in a myriad of languages requiring interpretation. The intensity and breadth of learning is limited only by the desire of the student. Variations in language have not been a burden upon the spread of the faith, nor in the ability of Muslims, most of whom do not converse in Arabic, to become faithful Mu'min. The argument that prayers in Arabic only maintain the exact meaning of the prayer is a fallacious one in light of how the rest of the meaning is transmitted every day, worldwide. Among Muslims who pray proficiently in Arabic exist those who trade slaves, kill innocents, and commit other depravities in God's Name. Prayer in Arabic alone does not convey an understanding of the true nature of God nor His intent for us as a people.

I am a native Arabic speaker and I have never had to struggle to learn the prayers in Arabic. With all due respect, I do not believe that I am rewarded for praying in Arabic. There is no foundation for believing that, in fact, I belieev that is a ethno-chauvinist notion. I also do not believe that a requirement for prayer in Arabic can be deduced from fiqh, although a desire for it being a binding factor within the ummah may be derived from study. Fiqh is allowed to take into consideration the interest of the ummah, large and small. The brotherhood of prayer may be found in reciting the obligatory prayers in one language, but there is no sin in not always reciting prayer in Arabic.

Reliance on fiqh to discern requirements for any aspect of Islam can become a trap when not used properly. Ijima is a tool and scholars our helpers, but our practices are to be our own burden, not theirs. If one relies on fiqh, one also has a great responsibility to understand beyond what is behind the rulings.

For example, if one makes the claim that classical fiqh is composed of the Sunnah of Allah and the Sunnah of the Prophet Muhammad, that ijima rules, and therefore, 5 mandatory prayers can only be recited in Arabic, then one must rely on all things ijima. That would lead you to also declare that every couple on this board consisting of a Muslim man and a non-Muslim woman living or intending to live together in the west is going against the law. Classical fiqh has also determined that for a Muslim man to take a non-Muslim wife and live with her in a non-Muslim country is committing a reprehensible act in defiance of God's Will. To be consistent, one will have to assert all things ijima as the best practice and in the best interest of the ummah, meaning that one will also need to believe that.

I am not saying that you are unwilling to do that, m&n, but I have not seen you broach that subject on a board where the majority have been willfully breaking such a law for years, although it is a matter of classical fiqh law. We don't often do that, for it is difficult to uphold such decisions in personal matters among friends who are in defiance of it. I only present it as an example of how asserting fiqh without proper examination of the law, and without full knowledge of how it is to be applied can lead to holes in our claims, or a hesitancy to assert it in challenge to all claims that are in opposition to fiqh law.

When we ask a scholar a question and if we receive an answer that we don't particularly like than it's our decision what to do with it from there, and that is so true. But, it is up to us to learn more about how the scholar has formed the answer, how it applies in the particular circumstances involving us and if the answer is even correct and/or binding before we assert the answer to others. If prayer in Arabic is binding based on fiqh and ijima, and fiqh and ijima are based on sharia, and that is why we believe it to be required, then we cannot, in good conscious, assert one requirement in fiqh and not others, can we?

holy #######...maybe arabic is the language of preference 'cause it's shorter! I didn't understand one word you just said. I like to keep things simple.

[melly 0]

I've asked this question before and this question has been asked by many. When we ask a scholar a question and if we receive an answer that we don't particularly like than it's our decision what to do with it from there, however, no myths are being perpetuated. A ruling is made if it is referred to in a verse, in a hadith, or through `igma3 which is the consensus of the scholars that studied the quran & hadith. In the book fiqh al-sunnah in the volume that discusses the requirements of salat or prayer, it lists all the requirements of prayer, such as removal of filth, facing the qiblah, etc.......one of the requirements listed is that the recitation be done in Arabic. I have these volumes and I looked it up & it is there. The reasons given are many but the one that was mentioned first & that the consensus is based on is that the Prophet, when people asked him how should we pray, replied, "Pray like you see me praying."

But it is undersood that for most people whose first language is not Arabic it will take some time until they learn the verses and of course God is merciful and does not burden a soul with more than it can bear and so the prayer should be done in translation until they can learn the verses.....just as with children....because it will take time to learn. It did mention and it is always comforting to know that those who are trying & find it harder & perhaps are stumbling over words actually get double the reward than someone who finds the language easy. Someone who finds the language easy gets the reward for praying. Someone who finds it hard gets double, a reward for praying and a reward for trying.....I think that's fair........how could that not be fair?

Bismillah. Salaam and thank you very much, m&n, for your prompt and concise answer to the question posed. However, and with all due respect, it does not cite Quran nor Sunnah, the elements needed to make a ruling binding. Merely being mentioned in a list in a book of fiqh does not mean that the element is of the sharia, only that the element is of fiqh.

With all due respect, I own books of classical fiqh, but have also intently learned about the history of their development, their level of authority and how it was obtained, and the context in which they are to be used, among other issues.

First, one must understand the sharp and important differences between fiqh and sharia. Unlike sharia, which cannot be debated, fiqh, in and of itself, is not divine, and can be debated, even if ijima exists, for ijima and fiqh are mortal constructs not to supercede the divinity of God's law.

It was fervently acknowledged by the great imams of the major schools of thought that their determinations were not only fallible, debatable and changeable, but, to be challenged if necessary, for they were not God, could do only their best in determining His Will in matters he did not dictate directly, and were liable to err. In fact, their rulings on similar matters varied from society to society in order to address the norms and needs of that particular society. That is why the existence of more than one school of thought, coming to differing conclusions has never been vexing for Muslim scholars.

In fiqh, sharia is an aspect of fiqh determinations, it is not the only one. Other considerations are included, including, but not limited to, tradition, precedent, politics, geography, history, ethnicity, and patriarchy, all varying from place to place.

So, why has Arabic been determined in fiqh to be the only language allowable for the obligatory prayers, and is the determination a preference or a requirement sanctioned by Allah?

The language of prayer is one of the issues that Allah did not address directly, and the scholars wrestled with it in the face of differing languages in different societies where Islam spread. In fact, re the issue, Iman Hanifa, the scholar to whom is often referred when discussing the "requirement" to recite prayers in Arabic, changed his mind. At first, he declared that Arabic was NOT required for the mandatory 5 prayers. Later, he decided that it was. This is how man makes decisions about God's requirements, not how God makes decisions about His requirements.

We have the issue of precedent, which is extremely important in fiqh determinations; the ages old precedent of how the prophets and messengers prior to Muhammad (pbuh) addressed Allah (saws) and how they taught the believers among them in their own languages, and that their praise and worship of God was accepted. The Quran addresses the use of Arabic approximately 11 times, saying that the Message is revealed in Arabic so that it may be well understood by those who care to gain wisdom. It also acknowledges that it is a confirmation of prior scriptures, specifically that of Musa, who did not teach in Arabic. The Quran also says that we are never to rank the prophets, for that is the duty of God. That Muhammad taught and prayed in Arabic is not a directive for all of us to pray in Arabic. He prayed in Arabic because that is the only language he knew, not because it was the only language Allah will accept. When he said, "Pray as you see me pray", he was not referring to the concept that the Message is lost in a transliteration. The precedent of the earlier prophets and messengers teaching with the guidance of Allah in languages other than Arabic denies that assertion.

Being that Islam was revealed for centuries in other languages prior to Arabic, it is totally incorrect to say that Arabic is the original language of Islam and the divine language of Islam, as some answers to this question have maintained. It is neither original nor divine. All languages belong to Allah and He understands every one of them. So, we come to the issue of Islam in other languages.

The Prophet taught only in Arabic, but Muslims today do not. Islam is learned in a myriad of languages requiring interpretation. The intensity and breadth of learning is limited only by the desire of the student. Variations in language have not been a burden upon the spread of the faith, nor in the ability of Muslims, most of whom do not converse in Arabic, to become faithful Mu'min. The argument that prayers in Arabic only maintain the exact meaning of the prayer is a fallacious one in light of how the rest of the meaning is transmitted every day, worldwide. Among Muslims who pray proficiently in Arabic exist those who trade slaves, kill innocents, and commit other depravities in God's Name. Prayer in Arabic alone does not convey an understanding of the true nature of God nor His intent for us as a people.

I am a native Arabic speaker and I have never had to struggle to learn the prayers in Arabic. With all due respect, I do not believe that I am rewarded for praying in Arabic. There is no foundation for believing that, in fact, I belieev that is a ethno-chauvinist notion. I also do not believe that a requirement for prayer in Arabic can be deduced from fiqh, although a desire for it being a binding factor within the ummah may be derived from study. Fiqh is allowed to take into consideration the interest of the ummah, large and small. The brotherhood of prayer may be found in reciting the obligatory prayers in one language, but there is no sin in not always reciting prayer in Arabic.

Reliance on fiqh to discern requirements for any aspect of Islam can become a trap when not used properly. Ijima is a tool and scholars our helpers, but our practices are to be our own burden, not theirs. If one relies on fiqh, one also has a great responsibility to understand beyond what is behind the rulings.

For example, if one makes the claim that classical fiqh is composed of the Sunnah of Allah and the Sunnah of the Prophet Muhammad, that ijima rules, and therefore, 5 mandatory prayers can only be recited in Arabic, then one must rely on all things ijima. That would lead you to also declare that every couple on this board consisting of a Muslim man and a non-Muslim woman living or intending to live together in the west is going against the law. Classical fiqh has also determined that for a Muslim man to take a non-Muslim wife and live with her in a non-Muslim country is committing a reprehensible act in defiance of God's Will. To be consistent, one will have to assert all things ijima as the best practice and in the best interest of the ummah, meaning that one will also need to believe that.

I am not saying that you are unwilling to do that, m&n, but I have not seen you broach that subject on a board where the majority have been willfully breaking such a law for years, although it is a matter of classical fiqh law. We don't often do that, for it is difficult to uphold such decisions in personal matters among friends who are in defiance of it. I only present it as an example of how asserting fiqh without proper examination of the law, and without full knowledge of how it is to be applied can lead to holes in our claims, or a hesitancy to assert it in challenge to all claims that are in opposition to fiqh law.

When we ask a scholar a question and if we receive an answer that we don't particularly like than it's our decision what to do with it from there, and that is so true. But, it is up to us to learn more about how the scholar has formed the answer, how it applies in the particular circumstances involving us and if the answer is even correct and/or binding before we assert the answer to others. If prayer in Arabic is binding based on fiqh and ijima, and fiqh and ijima are based on sharia, and that is why we believe it to be required, then we cannot, in good conscious, assert one requirement in fiqh and not others, can we?

holy #######...maybe arabic is the language of preference 'cause it's shorter! I didn't understand one word you just said. I like to keep things simple.

I'm sorry to say I wasted my time reading the whole thing. While I did understand what she was saying, it was just "the usual". No worries Doodle.

[Sofiyya 1,687]

My usual is usually right.

[Sofiyya 1,687]

holy #######...maybe arabic is the language of preference 'cause it's shorter! I didn't understand one word you just said. I like to keep things simple.

It's unfortunate that you didn't understand it. It wasn't complex. Maybe I should have posted it in Arabic.