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Filed: Timeline
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Hello, i'm not exactly sure where to post this, but here it goes.

My dad has married a woman in Peru, lets call her Linda, and he is in the process of bringing Linda and her son Roberto here from Peru. My dad had paid for Roberto's father to sign a paper allowing his son to leave the country with his mother Linda. (the father had to be found because he is not in the child's life)

Okay, so now His wife Linda and Roberto finally got their visas and were at the airport about to leave for the US, when apparently the Peruvian embassy would not allow Roberto to leave the country. They said that the notarized paper his father had signed was only temporary and had expired.

So my question is, Why did the U.S. give Roberto his Visa in the first place without this piece of documentation that will allow him to leave with his fathers consent? I mean the things that had to be sent in order for them to get their visas was insane (due to suspicion of fraud), but how could they not want this obvious important piece of information? My family believes there is something very suspicious going on here but we just dont know enough to verify it.

If someone could please help i would greatly appreciate it, Thank you.

 
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